From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
After the tribulation, will those who survived enter the kingdom in their human bodies? During the kingdom will there be sin on earth?
Would you explain the difference in the Old Covenant and the New Covenant? I have been reading in Jeremiah 31:31-34 and need a clearer understanding of all of it.
Do you believe in lordship salvation and repentance?
How strong of a dispensationalist are you? For example, Do you believe that salvation is different during different times? Do you believe that there is no connection between the new covenant and the new birth?
