Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
In 1Chronicles 11:15-19 there is recorded an interesting story about David and Three of his men. The story is simple to understand but I was wanting to know if you think the story serves as a type of anything? If you have any thoughts on this passage I would like to read them.
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
Is it all right to pierce our body when it is supposed to be the temple of the Holy Spirit?
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
