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Will we know if the antichrist is here, the man of sin, the son of perdition? Also will we go thru any part of the 70th week?
I am confused. I want to do things right...How do you lead someone into receiving the baptism of the Holy Spirit. Are we suppose to what we call (tarry) with them?
What is the correlation/connection between water baptism and church membership? I see where Acts 2:41 references both baptism and adding to the church in the same context, but have not found where baptism is clearly required for church membership.
If Adam sinned and fell, why should I need salvation? How can the sin of Adam affect me? What does the Psalmist refer to when he says my mother conceived me in sin? Please explain the concept of natural sin clearly.
I have a question regarding this and need some clarifications. I use the Scofield KJV (copyright 1967) and it has a correction to the original 1611 KJV. My Scofield says (the phrase is in italics in my Bible) "The KJV omits this italicized clause, which appears in all important Greek mss." Do you consider this to be an error in the 1611 edition or do you consider Scofield's position to be in error?
With so many religions and religious texts, how can we know the Bible is true, and that Christianity is the right way of living out the biblical text?
The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV.  What is the difference?
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo?  It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?".  That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Can you please comment or explain Psalm 82:6 where God says, "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High." I know in John 10:34 Jesus makes reference to this passage. I have family members who are Mormons and they use these verses to promote their belief that they will one day become gods.