Were the italicized words in the original Hebrew and Greek, and if not are they inspired?
Please don't be alarmed by my question. I am doing some research, and some questions are coming to light. Here are a few:
I believe the Bible teaches we are to abstain from wine. However, I have been challenged with Deuteronomy 14:26. This passage deals with those whose journeys are far from the temple. Therefore, they are to take money and purchase what the soul "lusteth" after (?) which includes wine. What is going on? I know other clear statements in the Bible cannot be set aside to "make way" for the idea there are instances people can drink. However, I don't have much of an answer.
In Acts 1:13, Judas is referred to as the brother of James in the KJV, yet in all of the newer versions, he is called the son of James. Do you know why all of the newer versions change this?
We have a couple of Santa's in the house. After reading James Melton's tract on it, should we throw them away; and also, should we not give them as gifts to the nursing home residents?
In Noah Webster's 1828 dictionary, there is no meaning of the word culture as it can be used at times today. The 1828 meaning basically defines it as any labor for improvement or growth. When did this word change its meaning? The reason I was thinking about this is because some people who call themselves Christian refer to the Bible's "culture" at the time. Someone has told me that in the culture at the time of the Bible women couldn't be a pastor. I have heard others refer to a "Southern" culture or a "Northern" culture. In these times when diversity and tolerance is stressed in and outside of the "church", this word is used (or misused) frequently. Another phrase used is "culturally relevant". It may be culturally relevant at one time but not another. Of course it is comforting to know that the Bible transcends all so-called "cultures"!
