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Questions and Answers

Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
Could you explain these verses in Ephesians 4:26, 31. Can we as sinners be angry and not sin?
Regarding James 4:5, I cannot find it located in any previous scriptures. I looked it up in a concordance, and it is not located in the Old Testament. Am I totally misunderstanding what this says?