I have a question that you may be able to answer. The JW's say that the word "hell" in the Bible does not always refer to the lake of fire but sometimes the abode of the dead or the grave. I have heard others say that when the terms sheol, Hades, etc are translated "hell" that the King James Translators understood that it was a reference to the lake of fire. Which is true?
Describe how people were saved in the Old Testament after the law was given?
How can anyone be saved before the saving work of our LORD JESUS CHRIST? If even one person could be saved without his blood, then does that mean that the FATHER is evil, putting his son to useless suffering, for if HE can save one can HE not save them all the same way? The Bible says that if righteousness could be given by the law, then it would have been given, but it is not possible.
1 Samuel 15:22 - What kind of sacrifice pleases God? What does He reject?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
