Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Can you please comment or explain Psalm 82:6 where God says, "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High." I know in John 10:34 Jesus makes reference to this passage. I have family members who are Mormons and they use these verses to promote their belief that they will one day become gods.
We have a couple of Santa's in the house. After reading James Melton's tract on it, should we throw them away; and also, should we not give them as gifts to the nursing home residents?
Why is there such a recent surge in the popularity of movies and TV shows dealing with "messages from the dead?" Why is the practice of consulting with psychics, such as Sylvia Brown or John Edwards (who claim to talk to the dead and consult spirit guides) becoming spiritually acceptable to so many?
Graham Phillips writes that Antipater, son of Herod, was the biological father of Jesus with his wife Miriamne (Greek for Mary). He backs his claim with a close reading of the Gospels. If that is so, it would require a radical reinterpretation of the Gospels. Is Christian orthodoxy ready to do so if the "proof" of Jesus' paternity turns out to be true?
