I have a question regarding this and need some clarifications. I use the Scofield KJV (copyright 1967) and it has a correction to the original 1611 KJV. My Scofield says (the phrase is in italics in my Bible) "The KJV omits this italicized clause, which appears in all important Greek mss." Do you consider this to be an error in the 1611 edition or do you consider Scofield's position to be in error?
How do we know that the 1611 King James Bible is the divinely inspired one, and not an earlier English translation?
With so many religions and religious texts, how can we know the Bible is true, and that Christianity is the right way of living out the biblical text?
The Gospels seem to contradict one another when they show Jesus' last words. I am attempting to show a person that the King James Bible doesn't contradict itself, yet I didn't really have a good explanation for this, other than each account gives some of Jesus' last words and perhaps not literally the last words.
The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV. What is the difference?
