Please explain Jude 1:9.
Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your opinion on the confession mentioned in Romans 10:8-10? I have heard many preachers say that a person is not saved until he or she makes a public confession of salvation based on this scripture.
The term, elder, has a wider range than the term, bishop. Elder may refer to Old or New Testament offices. It may also refer to men of age, experience, and/or wisdom. Bishop refers to a specific New Testament office.
Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
