We (Christians) have consistently been told that all children who die before they reach an age where they can understand about personal salvation (an age of accountability to God) that they go to heaven. I have prayerfully searched the scripture, all references, for anything regarding children, infants, family, brother, sisters, mothers, fathers, salvation, etc. Nothing could I find to support the argument, even though it does refer to passages where the whole family was saved (I believe in two places) and Christ Himself says to His disciples not to stop children coming to Him. Though nowhere can I find these ideas where accountability and instant infant/child salvation have any relationships, though salvation tied to the family maybe classed as having some scriptural basis.
What does Acts 2:38 mean?
The Gospels seem to contradict one another when they show Jesus' last words. I am attempting to show a person that the King James Bible doesn't contradict itself, yet I didn't really have a good explanation for this, other than each account gives some of Jesus' last words and perhaps not literally the last words.
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
The scriptures say that the Apostle Peter was married and that she was lead to martyrdom in Rome. I would like to know as much as possible about Peter's wife. Was she traveling with him all the time? Did they have children?
