In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
In the question and answer section of your website on doubting your salvation, the writer quotes Galatians 2:16 and indicates "the faith OF Christ" refers not to faith IN Christ, but Christ's actual faith. That verse is referred to also in the same way in the section on "how to lose your salvation." JF&B, Matthew Henry, Luther, and Wiersbe all seem to indicate that this verse refers to faith IN Christ. Can you tell me of any other sources that support your interpretation?
Could you help me refute the teaching of soul sleep?
My understanding of the day of the Lord as referred to in the Bible with the end times starts after the rapture. These verses suggest that the Day of the Lord starts with different periods in respect to the rapture. Joel 3:31, 1 Thessalonians 5:1-5 and Isaiah 13:9. Can you please explain these verses to me as to when exactly the day of the Lord begins?
