Are tongues for today? Are they unknown or known tongues and what is the meaning of angelic tongues? Can you explain 1 Corinthians 14 to me; this is the chapter that my relatives say proves that speaking in tongues is for today.
Will God, through the Holy Spirit, finally give up on calling someone for salvation, if the person continues to reject the call?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
I am trying to find scriptures on where God came from. Can you please direct me?
What is "the mystery of the faith" found in 1 Timothy 3:9?
