I would like to ask your explanation regarding the "spirit" of man. After a man dies, the flesh goes to the ground, the soul goes to Heaven if the man has accepted Christ as Lord and personal Saviour, or to Hell if he has not, and the spirit, where does it go? In Ecclesiastes, it was mentioned there that the spirit goes to God who created it. Also the "spirit" of man is the one that gives the believer the knowledge of God through the Holy Spirit as Given in 1 Corinthians chapter 2. My first question is this, does the "spirit" of an unbelieving man have knowledge of God. Is it alive (the spirit) while man has not accepted Christ?
Please define and explain the characteristics of the soul and the spirit of man.
Could you please explain 1 Corinthians 6:18 - "Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body."
Are we supposed to be able to get to a point to where we never sin?
How can anyone be saved before the saving work of our LORD JESUS CHRIST? If even one person could be saved without his blood, then does that mean that the FATHER is evil, putting his son to useless suffering, for if HE can save one can HE not save them all the same way? The Bible says that if righteousness could be given by the law, then it would have been given, but it is not possible.
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
