Please don't be alarmed by my question. I am doing some research, and some questions are coming to light. Here are a few:
In Acts 1:13, Judas is referred to as the brother of James in the KJV, yet in all of the newer versions, he is called the son of James. Do you know why all of the newer versions change this?
Do you have anything on this subject? I don't know if you believe that the Jews have lost there promise or not but do you have any thing on your web site about this?
I am a teen Sunday School teacher and one of my students is really into Greek mythology. My question is do you have any suggestions for me to show him that this is a demon religion.
In Noah Webster's 1828 dictionary, there is no meaning of the word culture as it can be used at times today. The 1828 meaning basically defines it as any labor for improvement or growth. When did this word change its meaning? The reason I was thinking about this is because some people who call themselves Christian refer to the Bible's "culture" at the time. Someone has told me that in the culture at the time of the Bible women couldn't be a pastor. I have heard others refer to a "Southern" culture or a "Northern" culture. In these times when diversity and tolerance is stressed in and outside of the "church", this word is used (or misused) frequently. Another phrase used is "culturally relevant". It may be culturally relevant at one time but not another. Of course it is comforting to know that the Bible transcends all so-called "cultures"!
