Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Why is there such a recent surge in the popularity of movies and TV shows dealing with "messages from the dead?" Why is the practice of consulting with psychics, such as Sylvia Brown or John Edwards (who claim to talk to the dead and consult spirit guides) becoming spiritually acceptable to so many?
Where in all of the scripture is there expressly described the scenario of Lucifer deceiving other of God's heavenly host and causing them to rebel along with him against God ? I know Jesus said He saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven. I know in Genesis 6 that there were angels who left heaven because they fell in lust with women of earth. Scripture expressly writes of Lucifer and the secret desire of his perverted heart and mind to take Gods' place. And I know that Jude writes of angels not keeping what he calls, " their first estate ". But is there some set of scriptures which actually provide an express narrative of Lucifer deceiving and causing other angels to rebel against God?
Can you explain the woman being hid in Revelation 12 and Israel's part in the tribulation?
Do Christians require anointing oil, i.e. olive oil, to heal the sick, as instructed in James?
