Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Please explain the difference between a licensed preacher & an ordained preacher. Can a licensed preacher do weddings, funerals, baptisms, etc? The man I am referring to is an ordained deacon, but has only been licensed to preach.
Is the church the building as we know it today or is it the body?
Do Christians require anointing oil, i.e. olive oil, to heal the sick, as instructed in James?
