When I read in Acts 7 I noticed in verse 38 that Stephen actually uses the word "church" in reference to the time of Moses. The main question is that most people I talk to say the Church began in the New Testament times, (usually at the time of Pentecost). Are not the Hebrews themselves the 'called out people' of the Old Testament?
My question is, why do people call the Bible the Word of God when it is clearly a name given to Jesus? If you read the Bible believing that the Bible is the Word of God it gives you a very different message from reading it with the understanding that Jesus being the Word of God.
I recognize the Bible states that God "predestines" us (Christians) for a future with Christ in Heaven [Ephesians 1:4-6, Romans 8:29-30, Romans 11: 5-6] and that he does NOT predestine others to Hell (1 Timothy 2:4, 2 Peter 3:9]; however, does this mean that only a few of the Christians on Earth were predestined by God and the rest "happened" to come to Christ by the work of these Christians and the Holy Spirit? Or were ALL the people who God knew would become Christian through His omniscience thus "predestined" by Christ?
When the Great Tribulation comes, how can people be saved? Is it still by faith or plain works?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
