I have heard that Matthew 25:32-46 shows that those saved in the tribulation are saved as a result of how they treat the Jewish people at that time, by works. Is the giving of food, water etc...the reason one gets the inheritance or is the passage speaking of what saved people do being heirs?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
I just read a book which states there must be peace and safety before the rapture can occur and that the earth must experience such a catastrophic event before the antichrist can come to power. Do you agree with this? If the apostles looked for Jesus in their time, why should I wait for peace and safety to look for him?
Why are the Angels described as being Michael's angels and not God's angels or Christ's angels? Is it possible that Michael could be part of the God head? Could Michael be Jesus Christ in 1 Thessalonions 4:16 of the Bible and John 5:25,28?
Do you believe in lordship salvation and repentance?
Which books in the Bible are called "The Law"? Which are called "The Prophets"?
