From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
Where in the Bible does it state that the ceremonial law was nailed to the cross?
What is Paul talking about in Galatians 5:4 when he talks about being fallen from grace?
In the question and answer section of your website on doubting your salvation, the writer quotes Galatians 2:16 and indicates "the faith OF Christ" refers not to faith IN Christ, but Christ's actual faith. That verse is referred to also in the same way in the section on "how to lose your salvation." JF&B, Matthew Henry, Luther, and Wiersbe all seem to indicate that this verse refers to faith IN Christ. Can you tell me of any other sources that support your interpretation?
