From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
Why should we take the Holy Communion? Who should not take the Holy Communion?
Where in the Bible does it state that the ceremonial law was nailed to the cross?
In our Bible study at church we are working our way through Hebrews and in my own daily reading I have been in Ezekiel. Recently I have read through the last 8 chapters concerning the millennial temple. It's been very interesting to me to compare some of the statements made in Hebrews with what we read in the last 8 chapters of Ezekiel. I have to say that I have questions without answers.
