What is your opinion on the confession mentioned in Romans 10:8-10? I have heard many preachers say that a person is not saved until he or she makes a public confession of salvation based on this scripture.
I have a website for ladies, and lately we women have been studying Titus 2:3-5. This week, we are looking at the phrase "keepers at home" in particular. My very old copy of Strong's concordance defines the word "keepers" as "stayers at home; ie. domestically inclined." However, newer Bible dictionaries online define it as "workers" or "taking care of domestic affairs." I found it strange that this is the only usage of this Greek word in the Bible, at least as far as I can tell. It seems fishy that older dictionaries defined this word as "staying" at home, where more recent dictionaries seem to broaden the meaning. I wish I knew Greek myself so that I didn't have to rely on others' definitions. But in my opinion, it seems that if God was careful enough to use a highly-specific word here (so specific that it's not used any where else in the Bible), why are modern definitions so broad?
Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
How do you get a Muslim to accept Jesus Christ as their Lord and Saviour if they believe that Allah is god and think they know enough about the Bible?
