I have a question regarding this and need some clarifications. I use the Scofield KJV (copyright 1967) and it has a correction to the original 1611 KJV. My Scofield says (the phrase is in italics in my Bible) "The KJV omits this italicized clause, which appears in all important Greek mss." Do you consider this to be an error in the 1611 edition or do you consider Scofield's position to be in error?
I have two questions:
My question is about paraphrase bibles. My Pastor likes to use one when he preaches. I work under this man in the ministry. My concern is if we teach or preach the word of God from a paraphrase bible, how will sinners know the truth of the individual words?
Were the italicized words in the original Hebrew and Greek, and if not are they inspired?
Please don't be alarmed by my question. I am doing some research, and some questions are coming to light. Here are a few:
