Could you please explain 1 Corinthians 6:18 - "Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body."
Are we supposed to be able to get to a point to where we never sin?
How do you define sin nature? I believe in the concept of original sin inherited from Adam, but recently I was told that sin is actually in our blood. I have believed that sin is in our nature, but I'd never thought of it as actually being in our blood.
What is the difference between sin and iniquity?
I have heard that Matthew 25:32-46 shows that those saved in the tribulation are saved as a result of how they treat the Jewish people at that time, by works. Is the giving of food, water etc...the reason one gets the inheritance or is the passage speaking of what saved people do being heirs?
How can anyone be saved before the saving work of our LORD JESUS CHRIST? If even one person could be saved without his blood, then does that mean that the FATHER is evil, putting his son to useless suffering, for if HE can save one can HE not save them all the same way? The Bible says that if righteousness could be given by the law, then it would have been given, but it is not possible.
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
