What is the difference between sin and iniquity?
I have heard that Matthew 25:32-46 shows that those saved in the tribulation are saved as a result of how they treat the Jewish people at that time, by works. Is the giving of food, water etc...the reason one gets the inheritance or is the passage speaking of what saved people do being heirs?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
My wife said something to me last night that raised my eyebrow. She said when Jesus died (was crucified), that he came back to life (in the flesh) and walked the earth for 81 days. I know that when Jesus died, his soul arose from the dead. But not in the flesh. Which is right?
Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
I would like to have some insight on the subject once in grace
always in grace. Me and some of my buddies have been discussing it and I am not sure I understand it.
always in grace. Me and some of my buddies have been discussing it and I am not sure I understand it.
