Regarding James 4:5, I cannot find it located in any previous scriptures. I looked it up in a concordance, and it is not located in the Old Testament. Am I totally misunderstanding what this says?
What are the keys to God's blessing?
My question is, why do people call the Bible the Word of God when it is clearly a name given to Jesus? If you read the Bible believing that the Bible is the Word of God it gives you a very different message from reading it with the understanding that Jesus being the Word of God.
Someone told me that the word "tempt" when it refers to God, was a typo. Please let me know what you think.
Are tongues for today? Are they unknown or known tongues and what is the meaning of angelic tongues? Can you explain 1 Corinthians 14 to me; this is the chapter that my relatives say proves that speaking in tongues is for today.
Are we supposed to be able to get to a point to where we never sin?
