In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
Who was the first slave master and slave in the Bible?
Recently, I have been discussing man being made in the image of God. Some say that God's essence is spirit and, therefore, that image is mind, will, and emotions (or similar variations) and cannot include anything physical like a body.Some put forth that the image is spirit, soul, and body. But even most of those admit that the body is looking forward to Jesus as God in the flesh. My question for you is, why couldn't the Word have had a spiritual/physical body before the incarnation and, thus, man being made in God's image would be body, soul, and spirit?
Person 'A' is a child/rapist/killer. Person 'B' is very kind and never intentionally hurt anyone. They both die without accepting Jesus as Saviour. Will there be any difference with regards to the degree of punishment they will receive after death?
In Genesis, Noah cursed Ham for looking upon his nakedness. Was there an underlying reason for this curse? Is the curse considered to be a "generational curse"?
