Describe how people were saved in the Old Testament after the law was given?
I have heard that Matthew 25:32-46 shows that those saved in the tribulation are saved as a result of how they treat the Jewish people at that time, by works. Is the giving of food, water etc...the reason one gets the inheritance or is the passage speaking of what saved people do being heirs?
How can anyone be saved before the saving work of our LORD JESUS CHRIST? If even one person could be saved without his blood, then does that mean that the FATHER is evil, putting his son to useless suffering, for if HE can save one can HE not save them all the same way? The Bible says that if righteousness could be given by the law, then it would have been given, but it is not possible.
1 Samuel 15:22 - What kind of sacrifice pleases God? What does He reject?
I have just read your article on the Sabbath. I am interested to know what you think of Isaiah 56. Is it not new covenant
(everlasting name)? This passage is also referring to the foreigner and the eunuch (gentile perhaps). Love to hear your view!
(everlasting name)? This passage is also referring to the foreigner and the eunuch (gentile perhaps). Love to hear your view!
