I have a question regarding this and need some clarifications. I use the Scofield KJV (copyright 1967) and it has a correction to the original 1611 KJV. My Scofield says (the phrase is in italics in my Bible) "The KJV omits this italicized clause, which appears in all important Greek mss." Do you consider this to be an error in the 1611 edition or do you consider Scofield's position to be in error?
I have two questions:
The popular belief is that Enoch and Elijah were translated up to heaven where God abides. If this is true, how do we explain Christ's words in John 3:13?
Were the italicized words in the original Hebrew and Greek, and if not are they inspired?
I was curious, since you have a rather strict stance on the King James Bible what you think of these verses in light of your views. I have emailed another Christian preacher who I also enjoy and he didn't really answer the question, so maybe you can.
