Were the italicized words in the original Hebrew and Greek, and if not are they inspired?
Please don't be alarmed by my question. I am doing some research, and some questions are coming to light. Here are a few:
The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV. What is the difference?
In Acts 1:13, Judas is referred to as the brother of James in the KJV, yet in all of the newer versions, he is called the son of James. Do you know why all of the newer versions change this?
We have a couple of Santa's in the house. After reading James Melton's tract on it, should we throw them away; and also, should we not give them as gifts to the nursing home residents?
