My question is, why do people call the Bible the Word of God when it is clearly a name given to Jesus? If you read the Bible believing that the Bible is the Word of God it gives you a very different message from reading it with the understanding that Jesus being the Word of God.
There are two Antioch's in the book of Acts. What are the differences between them?
I would like to ask your explanation regarding the "spirit" of man. After a man dies, the flesh goes to the ground, the soul goes to Heaven if the man has accepted Christ as Lord and personal Saviour, or to Hell if he has not, and the spirit, where does it go? In Ecclesiastes, it was mentioned there that the spirit goes to God who created it. Also the "spirit" of man is the one that gives the believer the knowledge of God through the Holy Spirit as Given in 1 Corinthians chapter 2. My first question is this, does the "spirit" of an unbelieving man have knowledge of God. Is it alive (the spirit) while man has not accepted Christ?
Are tongues for today? Are they unknown or known tongues and what is the meaning of angelic tongues? Can you explain 1 Corinthians 14 to me; this is the chapter that my relatives say proves that speaking in tongues is for today.
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
