How does the practice of "Urim and Thummin" in the Old Testament differ from forbidden practices of divination?
There are two Antioch's in the book of Acts. What are the differences between them?
What happened to the 12 tribes of Israel? Where are they now?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
In Galatians 1:9, it says that if anyone preaches a gospel that is different than the one you accepted, may he be condemned to hell. What does this mean?
