Please explain the thirty minute silence in Heaven of Revelation 8:1.
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Was John the Baptist the first man "filled with the Holy Ghost" vs. having the "Spirit put upon him?" {Luke 1:15 even from his mother's womb}
Which books in the Bible are called "The Law"? Which are called "The Prophets"?
Why does the bible refer Jesus the son of David?
