Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
I'm having a discussion with a friend about who gets blessings from God. She says God blesses everyone. I say God blesses the one who has faith and seeks him. Who does God Bless?
Would you please explain the significance of Christ's words to his mother in John 2:1-5.
How does the practice of "Urim and Thummin" in the Old Testament differ from forbidden practices of divination?
