Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
We were watching a DVD on the Welsh Revival of 1904. We did not finish it because the revival seemed to be based on a second blessing of the Holy Ghost. Why would the Lord bless an event based on false teaching or are we missing something? Also, John R. Rice wrote about Moody, R. A. Torrey, and even Spurgeon asking for more of the Holy Spirit to fill them, as in a second blessing. The Lord used them also to save souls. What are your thoughts on this?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
If a Christian finds himself doubting his beliefs and maybe for a while stops believing, is there any way for him to be saved and forgiven? Is it possible for such a person to regain his salvation, or can a period of disbelief never be forgiven by God?
How and why should a Christian be submissive to a corrupted government or selfish employer?
